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As if there aren't enough things to be bugged about in the world these days, here's another thing I've been grousing about for awhile (does it bug anyone else?):
I drink a fair amount of coffee, and enjoy trying out lots of cheap brands always in the (futile) hope of finding a cheapie I really, really like. Anyways, here’s the part that bugs me… almost always the container recommends using “1 to 2 tbsp. of coffee per 6 oz. of water.” First of all, “1 to 2” tbsp. is a big, 100% difference… even granting variability among consumers can’t they come up with a more precise statement (and then simply say add more or less according to personal taste). But the bigger problem is where the heck does 6 oz. come from??? A standard “cup” is 8 fluid oz. so why isn’t THAT the standard for directions? Anybody have a clue? Moreover, the question is (at least in America) does anyone even drink a “cup” of coffee anymore… most coffee mugs hold more than a standard “cup”…. checking out some of my mugs at home I found they generally held between 10 and 12 oz. of liquid, so hey, instruction-writers come on catch up to reality! (...or maybe I've just had a wee bit toooo much caffeine this morning).
Carry on… (i.e., go back to being concerned about covid, climate change, creeping fascism, and Redditors gaming Wall Street).
1 comment:
Good question, which has caused a good deal of confusion since the early 20C when the pseudo-standards were established: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cup_(unit)#Coffee_cup
The "teacup" is a similar non-cup size, and probably for a related reason.
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